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By Laurence
Gardner
The time-honoured
quest for the
Holy Grail has
been referred to
by some as the
'ultimate
quest', but in
1547 the Church
condemned Grail
lore as a heresy
even though
tradition
perceives the
Grail as a
thoroughly
Christian relic.
A heresy is
described as 'an
opinion which is
contrary to the
orthodox dogma
of the Christian
bishops'. The
word 'heresy' is
nothing more
than a
derogatory label
- a tag used by
a fearful
establishment
that has long
sought to
maintain control
of society
through fear of
the unknown. It
can therefore
define those
aspects of
philosophy and
research which
quest into the
realms of the
unknown and
which, from time
to time, provide
answers and
solutions that
are quite
contrary to
authorized
doctrine. As the
years progress,
however, it is
evident that
scientific and
medical
discovery must
overturn much of
the medieval
religious dogma
that has
persisted to
modern times.
And, in this
regard, some
previously cited
heresies are
already being
taken on board
by a Church that
has little
option to do
otherwise. So,
let us begin
with the most
obvious of all
questions: What
is the Holy
Grail? The word
'Gra-al'
originates from
ancient
Mesopotamia,
where it was
recorded as
being the
'nectar of
supreme
excellence'. It
was directly
related to the
bloodline of
kings who
descended from
the gods - those
monarchs who
were anointed
with the fat of
the sacred
Mûs-hûs: a type
of
monitor-crocodile
in the Euphrates
Valley. By
virtue of this
anointing, the
kings were also
called Mûs-hûs
(or, in Egypt,
Messeh) - a term
which in the
later Hebrew
tongue became
Messiah, meaning
Anointed One. By
medieval times
in Europe, this
line of kingly
descent was
defined by the
French word
Sangréal,
meaning Blood
Royal. This was
the Blood Royal
of Judah - the
line of King
David which
progressed to
the family of
Jesus. By the
Middle Ages, the
definition
Sangréal became
San Graal. When
written more
fully it was
Saint Graal -
the word
'saint', of
course, relating
to 'holy'. Then,
by a natural
linguistic
process, came
the more
romantically
familiar English
term, Holy
Grail. In
symbolic terms
the Grail is
often portrayed
as a chalice
that contains
the blood of
Jesus.
Alternatively it
is portrayed as
a vine of
grapes. The
product of
grapes is wine,
and it is the
chalice and the
wine of Grail
tradition that
sit at the very
heart of the
Eucharist (the
Holy Communion).
In this
sacrament, the
sacred chalice
contains the
wine that
represents the
perpetual blood
of Jesus. It is
quite apparent
that, although
maintaining the
ancient
Communion
custom, the
Christian Church
has conveniently
ignored and
elected not to
teach the true
meaning and
origin of the
custom. Few
people even
think to enquire
about the
ultimate
symbolism of the
chalice and wine
sacrament,
believing that
it comes simply
from some Gospel
entries relating
to the Last
Supper. But what
is the
significance of
the perpetual
blood of Jesus?
How is the blood
of Jesus (or of
anyone else for
that matter)
perpetuated? It
is perpetuated
through family
and lineage. So
why was it that
the Church
authorities
elected to
ignore the
bloodline
significance of
the Grail
sacrament?
The fact is that
every Government
and every Church
teaches the form
of history or
dogma most
conducive to its
own vested
interest. In
this regard we
are all
conditioned to
receiving a very
selective form
of teaching. We
are taught what
we are supposed
to know, and we
are told what
we're supposed
to believe. But,
for the most
part, we learn
both political
and religious
history by way
of national or
clerical
propaganda. This
often becomes
absolute dogma -
teachings which
may not be
challenged for
fear of
reprisals. With
regard to the
Church's
attitude towards
the chalice and
the wine, it is
apparent that
the original
symbolism had to
be reinterpreted
by the bishops
because it
denoted that
Jesus had
offspring. The
2nd-century
chronicler
Julius Africanus
of Edessa
recorded that,
during the
Jewish Revolt
from AD 66, the
Roman governor
of Jerusalem
instructed the
troops that all
Messianic
records should
be burned so as
to prevent
future access to
the details of
Jesus' family
genealogy. He
added, however,
that "A few
careful people
had private
records ... and
took pride in
preserving the
memory of their
aristocratic
origin".
Africanus
described these
royal inheritors
as the Desposyni
- a hallowed
style meaning
Heirs of the
Lord.
Subsequently,
the Palestinian
historian,
Hegesippus,
reported that in
AD 81 (during
the reign of the
Roman Emperor
Domitian) the
execution of
these family
inheritors was
ordered by
Imperial decree.
It was then
later confirmed
by Eusebius, the
4th-century
Bishop of
Caesarea, that
they were hunted
down and put to
the sword -
first by command
of the Empire
and then by the
newly introduced
Roman Church.
The writers were
unanimous,
however, in
stating that
although many of
the Desposyni
were seized,
others became
leaders of a
Nazarene church
movement that
opposed the
Church of Rome,
with leaders who
became the heads
of their sects
by way of a
"strict dynastic
progression".
Hence, the
required
destruction of
records was far
from complete,
and relevant
documents were
retained by
Jesus' heirs,
who brought the
Messianic
heritage from
the Holy Land to
the West. Not
only were
sacraments and
customary ritual
reinterpreted,
but the Gospels
themselves were
corrupted to
comply with the
newly designated
'male-only'
establishment of
the emergent
hybrid Church.
We are all
familiar with
the Gospels of
Matthew, Mark,
Luke and John -
but what about
the other
Gospels: those
of Philip, of
Thomas, of Mary
and of Mary
Magdalene? What
of all the
numerous
Gospels, Acts
and Epistles
that were not
approved by the
Church councils
when the New
Testament was
compiled? Why
were they
excluded when
the choices were
made? There were
actually two
main criteria
for selection,
and these (from
an earlier
short-list
prepared by
Bishop
Athanasius of
Alexandria) were
determined at
the Council of
Carthage in the
year AD 397. The
first criterion
was that the New
Testament
Gospels must be
written in the
names of Jesus'
own apostles.
Matthew was, of
course, an
apostle, as was
John - but Mark
was not an
apostle of Jesus
as far as we
know, neither
was Luke; they
were both
colleagues of
the later St.
Paul. Thomas and
Philip, on the
other hand, were
among the
original twelve,
and yet the
Gospels in their
names were
excluded. Not
only that but,
along with
various other
texts, they was
sentenced to be
destroyed. And
so, throughout
the
Mediterranean
world, numerous
unapproved books
were buried and
hidden in the
5th century.
Although many of
these books were
not rediscovered
until the 20th
century, they
were used openly
by the early
Christians.
Certain of them,
including the
Gospels
mentioned, along
with the Gospel
of Truth, the
Gospel of the
Egyptians and
others, were
actually
mentioned in the
2nd-century
writings of
early churchmen
such as Clement
of Alexandria,
Irenaeus of Lyon
and Origen of
Alexandria. So,
why were these
and other
apostolic
Gospels not
selected?
Because there
was a second,
far more
important
criterion to
consider - the
criterion by
which, in truth,
the Gospel
selection was
really made. It
was, in fact, a
wholly sexist
regulation which
precluded
anything that
upheld the
status of women
in Church or
community
society. Indeed,
the Church's own
Apostolic
Constitutions
were formulated
on this basis.
They state: "We
do not permit
our women to
teach in the
Church, only to
pray and to hear
those who teach.
Our master, when
he sent us the
twelve, did
nowhere send out
a woman - for
the head of the
woman is the
man, and it is
not reasonable
that the body
should govern
the head". This
was an
outrageous
statement with
no apparent
foundation, but
it was for this
very reason that
dozens of
Gospels were not
selected,
because they
made it quite
clear that there
were many active
women in the
ministry of
Jesus - women
such as Mary
Magdalene,
Martha,
Helena-Salome,
Mary-Jacob
Cleopas and
Joanna. These
were not only
ministering
disciples, but
priestesses in
their own right,
running
exemplary
schools of
worship in the
Nazarene
tradition.
The Church was
so frightened of
women that it
implemented a
rule of celibacy
for its priests
- a rule that
became a law in
1138; a rule
that persists
today. But this
rule has never
been quite what
it appears on
the surface, for
it was never
sexual activity
as such that
bothered the
Church. The more
specific problem
was priestly
intimacy with
women. Why?
Because women
become mothers,
and the very
nature of
motherhood is a
perpetuation of
bloodlines. It
was this that
caused such
concern - a
taboo subject
which, at all
costs, had to be
separated from
the necessary
image of Jesus.
We have all
learned to go
along with what
we are taught
about the
Gospels in
schoolrooms and
churches. But is
the teaching
correctly
related? Does it
always conform
with the written
scriptures? It
is actually
quite surprising
how much we
learn from
pulpits or
picture-books
without checking
the biblical
text. The
Nativity story
itself provides
a good example.
It is widely
accepted that
Jesus was born
in a stable -
but the Gospels
do not say that.
In fact, there
is no 'stable'
mentioned in any
authorised
Gospel. The
Nativity is not
mentioned at all
in Mark or John,
and Matthew
makes it quite
plain that Jesus
was born in a
house. So where
did the 'stable'
idea come from?
It came from a
misinterpretation
of the Gospel of
Luke, which
relates that
Jesus was 'laid
in a manger' -
and a manger was
nothing more
than an animal
feeding-box. In
practice, it was
perfectly common
for mangers to
be used as
emergency
cradles and they
were often
brought indoors
for that very
purpose. Why,
then, has it
been presumed
that this
particular
manger was in a
stable? Because
the English
translations of
Luke tell us
that there was
'no room in the
inn'. But the
old manuscript
of Luke did not
say that. In
fact, there were
no inns in the
region. The
original Greek
text of Luke
does not relate
that there was
'no room in the
inn'. By the
best translation
it actually
states that
there was 'no
place in the
room' (that is:
'no topos in the
kataluma'). As
previously
mentioned,
Matthew states
that Jesus was
born in a house
and, when
correctly
translated, Luke
reveals that
Jesus was laid
in a manger (a
feeding-box)
because there
was no cradle
provided in the
room. To
facilitate the
best possible
trust in the
Gospels, we must
go back to the
original Greek
manuscripts with
their often used
Hebrew and
Aramaic words
and phrases. In
this respect, we
discover that a
good deal of
relevant content
has been
misrepresented,
misunderstood,
mistranslated,
or simply just
lost in the
telling.
Sometimes this
has happened
because original
words have no
direct
counterpart in
other languages.
Christians are
taught that
Jesus' father
Joseph was a
carpenter, as
explained in the
English-language
Gospels. But it
did not say that
in the original
Gospels. By the
best
translation, it
actually said
that Joseph was
a "master
craftsman"
(rendered in
Greek as 'ho
tekton' from the
Semitic term 'naggar').
The word
'carpenter' was
simply a
translator's
concept of a
craftsman - but
the text
actually denoted
that Joseph was
a masterly,
learned and
scholarly man.
Another example
is the concept
of the Virgin
Birth.
English-language
Gospels tell us
that Jesus'
mother Mary was
a 'virgin'. It
was the same in
an early Latin
text which
referred to her
as being a 'virgo',
meaning nothing
more than a
young woman. To
have meant the
same thing as
virgin does
today, the Latin
would have been
'virgo intacta'
- that is to
say, a young
woman intact.
Looking back
beyond the Latin
to the older
documents, we
discover that
the word
translated to 'virgo'
(a young woman)
was the Semitic
word 'almah'
which meant the
very same - a
young woman. It
had no sexual
connotation
whatever. Had
Mary actually
been physically
virgo intacta,
the Semitic word
used would have
been 'bethulah',
not 'almah'.
Apart from such
anomalies, the
canonical
Gospels suffer
from numerous
purposeful
amendments. In
about AD 195,
Bishop Clement
of Alexandria
made the first
known amendment
to the Gospel
texts. He
deleted a
substantial
section from the
Gospel of Mark
and justified
his action in a
letter, stating:
"For even if
they should say
something true,
one who loves
the truth should
not agree with
them - for not
all true things
are to be said
to all men".
Even at that
stage, there was
already a
discrepancy
between what the
Gospel writers
had written and
what the early
bishops wanted
to teach! But
what exactly was
in this removed
section of Mark?
It was the item
which dealt with
the raising of
Lazarus - in the
course of which
the account made
it perfectly
clear that Jesus
and Mary
Magdalene were
man and wife.
Many scholars
have suggested
that the wedding
at Cana was the
marriage of
Jesus and Mary
Magdalene - but
this was not the
wedding ceremony
as such, being
simply the
pre-marital
betrothal feast.
The marriage is
defined by the
quite separate
anointings of
Jesus by Mary at
Bethany.
Chronologically,
these anointings
(as given in the
Gospels) were
two-and-a-half
years apart.
Readers of the
1st century
would have been
fully conversant
with the
two-part ritual
of the sacred
marriage of a
dynastic heir.
Jesus, as we
know, was a
Messiah, which
means quite
simply an
Anointed One. In
fact, all
anointed senior
priests and
Davidic kings
were Messiahs;
Jesus was not
unique in this
regard. Although
not an ordained
priest, he
gained his right
to Messiah
status by way of
descent from
King David and
the kingly line,
but he did not
achieve that
status until he
was ritually
anointed by Mary
Magdalene in her
capacity as a
bridal high
priestess. In
the Old
Testament's Song
of Solomon we
learn of the
bridal anointing
of the king. It
is detailed that
the oil used in
Judah was the
fragrant
ointment of
spikenard (an
expensive root
oil from the
Himalayas), and
it is explained
that this ritual
was performed
while the kingly
husband sat at
the table. In
the New
Testament, the
anointing of
Jesus by Mary
Magdalene was
indeed performed
while he sat at
the table, and
specifically
with the bridal
ointment of
spikenard.
Afterwards, Mary
wiped Jesus'
feet with her
hair and, on the
first occasion
of the two-part
ceremony, she
wept. All of
these things
signify the
marital
anointing of a
dynastic heir.
Messianic
marriages were
always conducted
in two stages.
The first (the
anointing in
Luke) was the
legal commitment
to wedlock,
while the second
(the later
anointing in
Matthew, Mark
and John) was
the cementing of
the contract. In
Jesus and Mary's
case the second
anointing was of
particular
significance
for, as
explained by
Flavius Josephus
in the
1st-century
Antiquities of
the Jews, the
second part of
the marriage
ceremony was
never conducted
until the wife
was three months
pregnant.
Dynastic heirs
such as Jesus
were expressly
required to
perpetuate their
lines. Marriage
was essential,
but community
law protected
the dynasts
against marriage
to women who
proved barren or
kept
miscarrying.
This protection
was provided by
the three-month
pregnancy rule.
Miscarriages
would not often
happen after
that term,
subsequent to
which it was
considered safe
enough to
complete the
marriage
contract. After
the second
Bethany
anointing, the
Gospels relate
that Jesus said:
"Wheresoever
this Gospel
shall be
preached
throughout the
whole world,
this also that
she hath done
shall be spoken
of for a
memorial of
her". But did
the Church
authorities
honour Mary
Magdalene and
speak of this
act as a
memorial? No
they did not;
they completely
ignored Jesus'
own directive
and denounced
Mary as a whore.
To the
Nazarenes,
however, Mary
Magdalene was
always regarded
as a saint. She
is still revered
as such by many
today, with
numerous
churches
dedicated to her
in the
Renaissance era.
But the
interesting fact
of this
sainthood is
that Mary is the
recognized
patron saint of
wine-growers -
the ultimate
Grail guardian
of the Vine.
Aspects of the
Gospels can
actually be
followed outside
the Bible. Even
the crucifixion
sentence of
Jesus is
mentioned in the
Annals of
Imperial Rome.
We can now
determine from
chronological
survey that the
Crucifixion took
place at the
March Passover
of AD 33, while
the Bethany
second marriage
anointing was in
the week prior
to that. We also
know that, at
that stage, Mary
Magdalene was
three months
pregnant - which
means she should
have given birth
in September of
AD 33.
As for Jesus'
death on the
cross, it is
perfectly clear
this was
spiritual death,
not physical
death, as
determined by a
three-day
excommunication
rule that
everybody in the
1st century
would have
understood. In
civil and legal
terms, Jesus was
denounced,
scourged and
prepared for
death by decree.
For three days
Jesus would have
been nominally
'sick', with
absolute 'death'
coming on the
fourth day.
Prior to this he
would be
entombed (buried
alive) in
accordance with
Jewish Council
law - but during
the first three
days he could be
raised or
resurrected, as
he had predicted
would be the
case. Raisings
and
resurrections
could only be
performed by the
High Priest or
by the Father of
the Community.
The High Priest
at that time was
Joseph Caiaphas
(the very man
who condemned
Jesus),
therefore the
raising had to
be performed by
the patriarchal
Father. There
are Gospel
accounts of
Jesus talking to
the Father from
the cross,
culminating in
"Father, into
thy hands I
commend my
spirit" - and
the appointed
Father of the
day was the
Magian apostle
Simon Zelotes.
During that
Friday afternoon
when Jesus was
on the Cross,
there was a
forward time
change, and the
Gospels explain
that the land
fell into
darkness for
three hours. The
Hebrew lunarists
made their
change during
the daytime, but
the Nazarene
solarists did
not make their
change until
midnight. This
explains why,
according to the
Gospel of Mark
(which relates
to lunar time),
Jesus was
crucified at the
third hour, but
in John (which
uses solar time)
he was crucified
at the sixth
hour. On that
evening the
Hebrews began
their Sabbath at
the old nine
o'clock, but the
Essenes and
Magians still
had three hours
to go before
their Sabbath.
During those
extra three
hours they were
able to work
with Jesus while
others were not
allowed to
undertake any
physical
activity. It was
for this reason
that the women
were so
astonished when
they found the
tomb-stone moved
at daybreak on
the Sunday - not
because it was
moved, but
because it had
been moved on
the Sabbath. And
so we come to
one of the most
misunderstood
events in the
Bible - the
Ascension. And
in consideration
of this, the
births of Jesus
and Mary
Magdalene's
children become
apparent. We
know from Gospel
chronology that
the Bethany
second-marriage
anointing of
Jesus by Mary
Magdalene was in
the week before
the Crucifixion
(at the time of
the March
Passover). Also
that, at that
stage, Mary was
three-months
pregnant and
should,
therefore, have
given birth six
months later in
the notional
month of
September AD 33.
The story is
taken up in the
Acts of the
Apostles, which
detail for that
month the event
which we have
come to know as
the Ascension.
One thing which
the Acts do not
do, however, is
to call the
event the
Ascension. This
was a tag
established by
way of a Church
doctrine more
than three
centuries later.
What the Bible
text actually
says is: "And
when he had
spoken these
things ... he
was taken up,
and a cloud
received him out
of their sight".
It then
continues,
relating that a
man in white
said to the
disciples: "Why
stand ye gazing
up into heaven?
This same Jesus
... shall so
come in like
manner as ye
have seen him
go". Then, a
little later in
the Acts, it
says that heaven
must receive
Jesus until 'the
times of
restitution'.
Given that this
was the very
month in which
Mary Magdalene's
child was due,
is there perhaps
some connection
between Mary's
confinement and
the so-called
Ascension? There
certainly is,
and the
connection is
made by virtue
of the said
'times of
restitution'.
Not only were
there rules to
govern the
marriage
ceremony of a
Messianic heir,
but so too were
there rules to
govern the
marriage itself.
The rules of
dynastic wedlock
were quite
unlike the
Jewish family
norm, and
Messianic
parents were
formally
separated at the
birth of a
child. Even
prior to this,
intimacy between
a dynastic
husband and wife
was only allowed
in December, so
that births of
heirs would
always fall in
the month
equivalent to
September - the
month of
Atonement, the
holiest month of
the calendar.
From the moment
of a dynastic
birth, the
parents were
physically
separated - for
six years if the
child was a boy
and for three
years if the
child was a
girl. Their
marriage would
only be
recommenced at
designated
'times of
restitution'.
Meanwhile, the
mother and child
would enter the
equivalent of a
convent and the
father would
enter the
kingdom of
heaven. This
kingdom was the
Essene high
monastery at
Mird, by the
Dead Sea, and
the ceremony of
entry was
conducted by the
angelic priests
under the
supervision of
the appointed
leader of the
pilgrims. In the
Old Testament
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